REVISION PASS PACK

Level 3 Anatomy & Physiology

101 L3 A&P MOCK QUESTIONS

Before you scroll down and start the 101 Level 3 Anatomy & Physiology mock questions, PRESS PLAY on the video below where Hayley introduces the mock questions and teaches you how to get the most out of them.

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The following 101 L3 Anatomy & Physiology mock questions are mapped to Active IQ, CYQ, YMCA and VTCT.  It's likely you'll have 40 Multiple Choice questions in 90 minutes for your real exam, it's best to check this with your training provider as some do vary.

Regardless of how many questions you have, it will include 3-8 questions on each of the following 8 modules. The questions will appear in a random order in your exam. However, the 101 mock questions below take 1 questions from each module. After every 8th question you can check your answer so you can cross reference them to the modules you need more revision on.

Module 1: Heart and Circulatory

Module 2: Musculoskeletal System

Module 3: Major Muscles & Locations

Module 4: The Body In Motion

Module 5: Posture, Flexibility & Core

Module 6: Nervous System

Module 7: Endocrine System

Module 8: Energy Systems

COMPLETE THE 101 MOCK QUESTIONS BELOW

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[REMEMBER: the 101 mock questions below takes 1 question from each of the 8 modules in your manual and then at the end of every 8th question you can check your answer]

For each of the following questions choose one correct answer from A to D

SECTION 1

Q1. What are the valves that prevent back flow of blood between the chambers of the heart called? 

A. Atrioventricular

B. Semilunar

C. Arteriovenous

D. Aortic

Q2. According to sliding filament theory, what do the myosin heads bind onto? 

A. Myoglobin

B. Calcium

C. Actin

D. ADP

Q3. What muscle attaches the iliac crest to the 12th rib and lumbar vertebrae? 

A. Erector spinae

B. Psoas major

C. Multifidus

D. Quadratus lumborum

Q4. Which joint is capable of pronation and supination? 

A. Ankle

B. Sacroiliac

C. Radio-ulna

D. Atlanto-axial

Q5. What is the sheet of connective tissue in the low back that stabilises the lumbar spine?

A. Abdominal aponeurosis

B. Iliocostal fascia

C. Anterior longitudinal ligament

D. Thoracolumbar fascia

Q6. What is required to generate a stronger contraction? 

A. Stronger action potentials

B. More motor neurons stimulated

C. Fewer motor neurons stimulated

D. More action potentials

Q7. The ovaries release hormones which?

A. Activate milk production in women who are breast feeding

B. Reduce bone growth and development

C. Stimulate the breakdown of Glycogen to Glucose

D. Decrease hair growth on the body

Q8. Which of the following is NOT a by-product of the aerobic energy system? 

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Heat

C. Water

D. Lactic acid

Which section needs more revision?

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SECTION 2

Q9. Which branch of the circulatory system supplies blood to the heart muscle?

A. Systolic

B. Pulmonary

C. Coronary

D. Systemic

Q10. Which term is used to describe the outer layer of connective tissue around a muscle?

A. Endomysium

B. Epimysium

C. Periosteum

D. Perimysium

Q11. What muscle crosses the ankle and knee joints? 

A. Tibialis anterior

B. Peroneus longus

C. Gastrocnemius

D. Soleus

Q12. During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip?

A. Lateral flexion

B. Horizontal flexion

C. Flexion

D. Plantar flexion

Q13. Insufficient core muscle function can lead to?

A. Increased inner core unit recruitment

B. Increased intra-abdominal pressure

C. Reduced loading of spinal ligaments

D. Increased postural abnormalities

 Q14. The section of the nervous system solely responsible for conscious control is the?

  1. Peripheral nervous system
  2. Central nervous system
  3. Somatic nervous system
  4. Autonomic nervous system

Q15. Which hormone regulates metabolism?

A. Insulin

B. Noradrenaline

C. Calcitonin

D. Thyroxine

 Q16. Which muscle fibres have the largest diameter?

A. Type 1 muscle fibres

B. Type 2 muscle fibres

C. Red muscle fibres

D. Brown muscle fibres

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SECTION 3

Q17. Which of the following would reduce blood pressure in the short term? 

A. Vasoconstriction

B. Increased venous return

C. Vasodilation

D. Lower heart rate

Q18. In the sliding filament theory which molecule provides the energy to enable myosin to pull on actin?

A. Creatine phosphate

B. Adenosine triphosphate

C. Adenosine diphosphate

D. Sodium and calcium 

Q19. Which of the following is a hamstring muscle that crosses the hip joint? 

A. Semimembranosis

B. Biceps femoris

C. Rectus femoris

D. Semitendinosis

Q20. When performing a Pectoral Dumbbell Fly, in what plane does most movement occur? 

A. Sagittal

B. Transverse

C. Frontal

D. Medial

Q21. Which posture type is most likely to reduce lung capacity? 

A. Hyperkyphosis

B. Hyperlordosis

C. Pronation of the feet

D. Valgus knees

Q22. What proprioceptor detects change in muscle tension?

A. Golgi tendon organs

B. Muscle spindles

C. Motor neurons

D. Motor units 

Q23. Which hormone is significant in the control of Diabetes? 

A. Noradrenaline

B. Oestrogen

C. Calcitonin

B. Insulin

Q24. What is the role of mitochondria in type 1 muscle fibres? 

A. Increased muscle size

B. Energy production

C. Calcium storage

D. Contractile apparatus

*TIP: Once you've read the question, DON'T jump straight into the 4 possible answers, take a second to think about what the answer could be - DON'T get sidetracked by the 3 wrong answers!!!

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SECTION 4

Q25. What exercise would cause acute high blood pressure?

A. Holding plank for a long time

B. Moderate intensity walking daily

C. 6 weeks of regular power lifting

D. Light gardening

Q26. What happens to the antagonist muscle during reciprocal inhibition? 

A. It contracts concentrically

B. It contracts eccentrically

C. It relaxes

D. It flexes

Q27. What muscle inserts onto the Femur?

A. Biceps brachii

B. Iliopsoas Major

C. Gastrocnemius

D. Soleus

Q28. Which joint action occurs in the medial-lateral axis?

A. Flexion

B. Adduction

C. Medial rotation

D. Lateral flexion

Q29. What does lumbar hyperlordosis increase the risk of?

A. Low back pain

B. Frozen shoulder

C. Rotator cuff tears

D. Abdominal obesity

Q30. What determines the number of motor neurons recruited?

A. Muscle

B. Autonomic nervous system

C. Central nervous system

D. Tendon

Q31. What is the main function of the endocrine system?

A. To aid digestion

B. To maintain homeostasis

C. To create energy

D. To aid circulation

Q32. What is a factor in determining which energy systems and fuels are used during exercise? 

A. Intensity of exercise

B. Frequency of training

C. Indoor or outdoor training

D. Weather and humidity

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SECTION 5

Q33. What is a component of the plaques that form on artery walls in atherosclerosis?

A. Vasodilation

B. Vasoconstriction

C. High density lipoproteins

D. Low density lipoproteins

Q34. Which of the following is a myofilament protein? 

A. Actin

B. Perimysium

C. Epimysium

D. Tendon

Q35. Which muscle helps to hold the head of humerus into the glenoid cavity of the scapula?

A. Supraspinatus

B. Serratus anterior

C. Pectoralis minor

D. Levator scapulae

Q36. Which joint action occurs when the sole of the foot faces outwards?

A. External rotation of the hip

B. Internal rotation of the hip

C. Eversion of the ankle

D. Inversion of the ankle

Q37. Which of the following is most likely to contribute towards an anterior pelvic tilt?

A.Daily walking

B. Pregnancy

C. Osteoarthritis

D. Osteoporosis

Q38. When is proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching appropriate?

A. Warm-up

B. Cool-down

C. Cardiovascular component

D. Resistance component

Q39. Which of the following is an endocrine gland? 

A. Liver

B. Gall bladder

C. Adrenal

D. Stomach

Q40. Power is a product of strength combined with what other component of fitness? 

A. Balance

B. Speed

C. Agility

D. Coordination

*TIP: Once you've read the question... READ IT AGAIN! and try and find the key ACTION words. What is the VERB you are trying to answer for example release, generate or stabilise.

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SECTION 6

Q41. What is the immediate effect of the valsalva manoeuvre? 

A. No change to blood pressure

B. Decreases blood pressure

C. Increases blood pressure

D. Decreases heart rate 

Q42. Which muscle fibre type contains the greatest number of mitochondria? 

A. Type 1

B. Type 2a

C. Type 2b

D. Fast twitch

Q43. Which describes the erector spinae most accurately? 

A. Posterior deep muscle

B. Posterior superficial muscle

C. Anterior deep muscle

D. Anterior superficial muscle 

Q44. Which muscle stabilises the pelvis in the frontal plane? 

A. Serratus anterior

B. Multifidus

C. Quadratus lumborum

D. Longissimus 

Q45. What is the reason that abdominal obesity can lead to a change in posture? 

A. Backward migration of centre of gravity

B. Forward migration of centre of gravity

C. Tightness in upper trapezius

D. Tightness in pectoralis major 

Q46. What type of stretching involves the relaxation of all muscles around a joint? 

A. Ballistic

B. Dynamic

C. Passive

D. Active

Q47. Which hormone is released during times of stress? 

A. Cortisol

B. Cortisone

C. Relaxin

D. Oestrogen

Q48. Which of the following is a by-product of anaerobic work that may cause local muscle fatigue? 

A. Oxygen

B. Lactic acid

C. Creatine

D. Carbon dioxide

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SECTION 7

Q49. What does chronic hypertension, increase the risk of developing? 

A. Angina

B. Asthma

C. Acidosis

D. Arrhythmia

Q50. Calcium release in muscle tissue to stimulate actin and myosin interaction flows from the?

A. Cytoplasm

B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

C. Muscle spindle

D. Golgi tendon organ

Q51. Which muscle internally rotates and extends the humerus at the shoulder joint? 

A. Trapezius

B. Pectoralis major

C. Rhomboid major

D. Latissimus dorsi

Q52. Through which axis must the hips rotate, as the femur is moved into internal or external rotation? 

A. Anterior-posterior axis

B. Transverse axis

C. Longitudinal axis

D. Medial axis

Q53. What effect on movement potential is a typical outcome of thoracic hyperkyphosis? 

A. Increased thoracic rotation

B. Decreased thoracic rotation

C. Decreased lumbar rotation

D. Increased cervical rotation

Q54. What is a function of the central nervous system? 

A. Sensation

B. Muscle contraction

C. Thermoregulation

D. Analysis of information

Q55. Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic rate? 

A. Growth hormone

B. Thyroid hormones

C. Oestrogen

D. Cortisol

Q56. Which adaptation to endurance training enables more aerobic energy production in type 1 muscle fibres?

A. Increased mitochondria

B. Increased haemoglobin

C. Increased lactic acid

D. Increased creatine phosphate

*TIP: DO NOT LINK one exam question to another exam question.  There are no trends or tricks questions.  This is regulated by the Awarding Bodies and Ofqual.

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SECTION 8

Q57. The structures that prevent back flow of blood between the chambers of the heart are?

A. Atrioventricular valves

B. Ventricoatrial valves

C. Ventricoarterial valves

D. Atrioarterial valves

Q58. Muscle fibres can only function as part of a?

A. Motor group

B. Motor neuron

C. Motor unit

D. Motor stimulus

Q59. What is the name of the bony lump at the front end of the iliac crest called?

A. Anterior superior iliac spine

B. Anterior inferior iliac spine

C. Posterior superior iliac spine

D. Posterior inferior iliac spine

Q60. Whilst the pectoralis major contracts concentrically, which action takes place at the shoulder? 

A. Horizontal flexion

B. Lateral flexion

C. Retraction

D. Elevation

Q61. Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the inner unit? 

A. Diaphragm

B. Iliopsoas

C. Pelvic floor

D. Transversus abdominis

Q62. Which pair of minerals cross the axon membrane to create an electrical current? 

A. Sulphur and magnesium

B. Potassium and magnesium

C. Calcium and sodium

D. Sodium and potassium

Q63. What hormone is released when blood glucose levels fall? 

A. Insulin

B. Thyroxine

C. Glycogen

D. Glucagon

Q64. What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen? 

A. Lactic acid

B. Creatine

C. Carbon dioxide

D. ADP

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SECTION 9

Q65. Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be?

A. 90 mmHg

B. 120 mmHg

C. 150 mmHg

D. 180 mmHg

Q66. What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre?

A. Tendon

B. Fascicle

C. Sarcomere

D. Endomysium

Q67. Where is the origin of rectus abdominis?

A. Pubis

B. Femur

C. Lower ribs

D. Sternum

Q68. When in a standing position which movement occurs at the shoulder joint whilst reaching toward the ceiling?

A. Plantar flexion

B. Flexion

C. Protraction

D. Retraction

Q69. An exaggerated lumbar lordotic curve?

A. Decreases pressure on the intervertebral discs

B. Increases pressure on the intervertebral discs

C. Decreases pressure on the transverse processes

D. Increases pressure on the transverse processes

Q70. What is the name of the chemical messengers in the nervous system?

A. Neurotransmitters

B. Vesicles

C. Hormones

D. Histamines

Q71. Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands?

A. Pituitary, adrenals and liver

B. Thyroid, pancreas and heart

C. Pancreas, pituitary and thyroid

D. Spleen, testes and ovaries

Q72. Which activity will predominantly recruit ‘slow oxidative’ motor units? 

A. Sprinting

B. Throwing

C. Walking

D. Jumping

*TIP: It's easy to revise the modules we already know... if you want to pass you MUST take action of the modules you find tough!

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SECTION 10

Q73. Which of the following is a cardiovascular benefit of aerobic training? 

A. Reduced arterial elasticity

B. Improved myocardial contractility

C. Lower cardiac output

D. Higher lactic acid

Q74. Which statement best describes a tendon?

A. Connective tissue running in multiple directions surrounding the muscle fibres

B. Connective tissue running in multiple directions surrounding the muscle

C. Connective tissue running in one direction joining the bone to bone

D. Connective tissue running in one direction joining the muscle to the bone

Q75. Which of the following muscles adducts the shoulder when it contracts eccentrically? 

A. Latissimus dorsi

B. Pectoralis major

C. Deltoids

D. Biceps brachii

Q76. Which muscle is involved in hip abduction? 

A. Gracilis

B. Piriformis

C. Gastrocnemius

D. Pectineus

Q77. A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by?

A. Spinal extension

B. Shoulder extension

C. Plantar flexion

D. Spinal flexion 

Q78. What does a motor unit consist of?

A. Neuron and tendon

B. Neuron and fascia

C. Neuron and muscle fibres

D. Neuron and collagen fibres

Q79. Which statement describes the endocrine system? 

A. It is made up of neurons that transmit information between different parts of the body

B. It is made up of glands which secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate the body

C. It is made up of bones which provide support and protection to major organs

D. It is made up of muscles which allow movement of different parts of the body

Q80. The anaerobic threshold can be described as?

A. Heat build-up occurs slower than it can be cleared

B. Lactate build-up occurs slower than it can be cleared

C. Heat build-up occurs faster than it can be cleared

D. Lactate build-up occurs faster than it can be cleared

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SECTION 11

Q81. Which one of the following valves prevents back flow of blood into the left ventricle?

Q82. Where is calcium stored in the muscle cells? 

  1. Sarcoplasm
  2. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
  3. Golgi Tendon Organ
  4. Cell Nucleus 

Q83. Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the ribs and the iliac crest?

  1. External obliques
  2. Transverse abdominis
  3. Internal obliques
  4. Rectus abdominis

Q84. Which action is performed by the Semimembranosus? 

  1. Extension of the knee
  2. Flexion of the knee
  3. Abduction of the hip
  4. Adduction of the hip

Q85. In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur? 

  1. Frontal
  2. Transverse
  3. Sagittal
  4. Coronal

Q86. What protects muscles from being damaged via over-stretching? 

  1. Baroreceptors
  2. Muscle spindles
  3. Nociceptors
  4. Golgi tendon organs

Q87. Which glands would only be found in a female? 

  1. Testes
  2. Ovaries
  3. Pituitary
  4. Heart

Q88. What are the characteristics of Type 2b muscle fibres? 

  1. High force capacity, low mitochondria and low capillary density
  2. Low force capacity, high mitochondria and high capillary density
  3. Intermediate force capacity, high mitochondria and low capillary density
  4. Low force capacity, low mitochondria and high capillary density

*TIP: It's OK to ask for HELP - in fact, getting clarity of tricky topics puts your mind at ease and allows you to win come exam day!

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SECTION 12

Q89. Which structure is the arrow pointing to? 

  1. Circumflex artery
  2. Right coronary artery
  3. Left aortic valve
  4. Pulmonary artery

Q90. Which chemical is partly responsible for the bonding of the Actin and Myosin? 

A. Calcium

B. Sodium

C. Pyruvate

D. Glucose  

Q91. When the Bicep Brachii contracts concentrically, what happens to the Tricep Brachii? 

A. Contracts concentrically

B. Contracts eccentrically

C. Contracts isometrically

D. Relaxes  

Q92. Spinal Flexion moves along which axis-of-movement? 

A. Frontal

B. Medial-lateral

C. Longitudinal

D. Anterior-Posterior 

Q93. A benefit of core stability training is?

A. Increased risk of joint laxity

B. Reduced bone density

C. Increased cardiac output

D. Improved balance

Q94. What change occurs in the axon terminal of motor neurons as a result of regular exercise? 

A. Increased calcium stores

B. Increased creatine stores

C. Increased neurotransmitter stores

D. Increased testosterone stores

Q95. A negative feedback loop can be explained as?

A. A change in homeostasis is detected, the endocrine system stimulates a secretion of hormones that rectifies homeostasis again

B. A change in homeostasis is detected, the endocrine system stimulates a secretion of hormones that increases the change further

C. The nervous system sends a signal via the motor neurone to create movement

D. The digestive system stimulates peristalsis 

Q96. Which exercise would consume the most calories per minute of activity?

A. Brisk walking

B. A beginner body conditioning class

C. Competitive cycle race

D. Moderate swimming

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SECTION 13

Q97. What statement describes a short term effect of exercise? 

A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure

B. A decrease in stroke volume

C. A substantial increase in diastolic blood pressure

D. An increase in systolic blood pressure

Q98. The action of actin and myosin, is also known as which theory?

A. The sliding muscle theory

B. The sliding filament theory

C. The stretch reflex theory

D. All or none law 

Q99. What muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle? 

A. Gastrocnemius

B. Anterior Tibialis

C. Latissimus Dorsi

D. Soleus 

Q100. What type of joint is the articulation between the lumbar vertebrae?  

A. Suture

B. Cartilaginous

C. Fibrous

D. Synovial

Q101. Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor?

A. Reduced stress on ligaments

B. Increased stress on ligaments

C. Reduced sacral curvature

D. Increased sacral curvature

Q102. Rapidly lengthening a muscle will stimulate a neural response called?

A. The rapid reflex

B. The stretch reflex

C. The inverse stretch reflex

D. The converse stretch reflex

Q103. Which hormone is secreted by the Pituitary glands? 

A. Insulin

B. Thyroxin

C. Noradrenaline

D. Growth Hormone

Q104. Which of the following races would predominately use Type 2b muscle fibres? 

A. An ultra-marathon race

B. A 400m swimming race

C. A 100m running race

D. A Triathlon

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