Level 2 Principles Of Exercise

50 Principle Mock Questions

Before you scroll down and start the 50 Level 2 Principle of Exercise mock questions, PRESS PLAY on the video below where Hayley introduces the mock questions and teaches you how to get the most out of them.

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The following 50 L2 Principles Of Exercise mock questions are mapped to Active IQ, CYQ, YMCA and VTCT.  It's likely you'll have 32 Multiple Choice questions in 60 minutes for your real exam, it's best to check this with your training provider as some do vary.

Regardless of how many questions you have, it will include 3-6 questions on each of the following 7 modules. The questions will appear in a random order in your exam. The following 50 mock questions are also in a random order to represent the final exam as well. After every 10th question you can check your answers so you can track your progress as you go.

Module 1: The Effects Of Exercise On The Body

Module 2: The Components Of Fitness

Module 3: Variables and Principles Of Programming

Module 4: How To Monitor Intensity

Module 5: Health Benefits Of Physical Activity

Module 6: Exercise Contraindications For Special Populations

Module 7: The Importance of Healthy Eating


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For each of the following questions choose one correct answer from A to D


1. When is Blood Pooling most likely?

A. When you cool down slowly

B. When you stop exercising suddenly with no cool down

C. When sitting down for long times

D. If you cross your legs

2. According to the eat-well guide, what is one piece of healthy eating advice that underpins a healthy diet?

A. Eat fewer fruits and vegetables

B. Eat less fish

C. Eat less salt

D. Eat fewer starchy foods

3. What training, if performed long-term, causes increased size and number of mitochondria?

A. Weight lifting

B. Power lifting

C. Stretching

D. Aerobic endurance

4. Which programme variable is regressed when a session is performed with fewer sets per exercise than planned?

A. Specificity

B. Volume

C. Frequency

D. Type

5. What characteristics do mesomorphic body types tend to have?

A. Lean with low muscle mass

B. Muscular with broad shoulders

C. Predisposed to fat storage

D. Rounder in appearance

6. When working with older adults, which guideline would be most appropriate?

A. High-impact warm-up

B. No warm-up

C. Longer warm-up

D. Shorter warm-up

7. What factor determines the amount of water needed for adequate hydration during exercise?

A. Physical Activity

B. Age

C. Gender

D. Fitness levels

8. What may be an indicator that training should be regressed?

A. Improved strength

B. Improved fitness

C. Reduced performance

D. Reduced heart rate

9. What will cessation of training cause?

A. Specificity

B. Reversibility

C. Individuality

D. Progressive Overload

10. Which factor increases the potential for men to gain greater muscle mass?

A. Increased oestrogen

B. Increased testosterone

C. Increased pelvic width

D. Increased body fat

Q1 = B  Q2 = C  Q3 = D  Q4 = B  Q5 = B

Q6 = C  Q7 = A  Q8 = C  Q9 = B  Q10 = B

Your score =   / Out of 10

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11. Which of the following is a health-related component of fitness?
A. Body Composition
B. Balance
C. Power
D. Reaction time
12. What is the recommended minimum number of fruit and vegetable portions to eat per day?
A. One
B. Seven
C. Two
D. Five
13. What will, strengthening the gluteus maximus and stretching the hip flexors and lower back, help to improve?
A. Hyperlordosis
B. Scoliosis
C. Hyperkyphosis
D. Flat back
14. What would be the recommendation for flexibility training for young people?
A. Use ballistic stretching
B. Stretch to mild tension
C. Stretch beyond muscle shake
D. Use partner stretching
15. Which of the following is not a variable within the FITT Principle?
A. Frequency
B. Flexibility
C. Type
D. Intensity
16. Which of the following are not a factor that influences health and fitness potential?
A. Age
B. Genetic Factors
C. Lifestyle Habits
D. Location in the UK
17. How many days per week is it recommended to exercise to improve muscular strength and endurance?
A. 5 days per week
B. Every day
C. 2-3 days per week
D. Once per week
18. Which of the following is a short term musculoskeletal adaptation to exercise?
A. Joints get stiff and reduce Range of Motion
B. Secretion of synovial fluid increases, lubricating joints
C. Muscles relax
D. The skin reduces in temperature
19. A long term effect of Aerobic- Endurance training would be?
A. Increased blood pooling
B. Increased resting Heart Rate
C. Increased blood Pressure
D. Increased Mitochondria
20. The recommended target heart rate (THR) intensity when training for maximum improved performance is from 80% of maximum heart rate (MHR) to?
A. 100% MHR
B. 70% MHR
C. 90% MHR
D. 65% MHR

Q11 = A  Q12 = D  Q13 = A  Q14 = B  Q15 = B

Q16 = D  Q17 = C  Q18 = B  Q19 = D  Q20 = A

Your score =   / Out of 10

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21. What does the Borg rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale measure?
A. Exercise intensity
B. Exercise duration
C. Exercise frequency
D. Exercise type
22. Regular physical activity may reduce the risk of:
A. Muscle Injury
B. Joint wear and tear
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Rheumatoid Arthritis
23. What does ADL stand for?
A. Activity Does Lots
B. Activity of Daily Living
C. Additional Danger Levels
D. Additional to Daily Living
24. What is the heart rate training zone for Moderate Activity, as stipulated by ACSM guidelines
A. 65-90% MHR
B. 70% MHR
C. 80-90% MHR
D. 50-65% MHR
25. Which core training exercise would be most appropriate to use immediately post-birth?
A. Jump squats
B. Pelvic floor exercises
C. Full Sit ups
D. Hanging Leg Raises
26. Spasticity of muscles is most likely to feature with which condition?
A. Cerebral Palsy
B. Heart Attack
C. Amputation
D. Osteoporosis
27. What blood pressure would be classed as contraindicated for exercise?
A. 182/112
B. 120/80
C. 115/75
D. 140/85
28. What may be of increased risk with poor nutrition?
A. Low blood pressure
B. Low cholesterol
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Type 2 diabetes
29. Which of the following is the primary role of carbohydrates?
A. To build hormones and enzymes
B. To provide energy for brain and body
C. To grow and repair human tissue
D. To hydrate
30. According to the Energy Balance equation, what must happen for a client to reduce body weight?
A. Energy Intake > (more than) Energy Output
B. Energy Intake < (less than) Energy Output
C. Energy Intake = (equal to) Energy Output
D. Energy Intake must include a diet shake

Q21 = A  Q22 = C  Q23 = B  Q24 = D  Q25 = B

Q26 = A  Q27 = A  Q28 = D  Q29 = B  Q30 = B

Your score =   / Out of 10

*TIP: Once you've read the question, DON'T jump straight into the 4 possible answers, take a second to think about what the answer could be - DON'T get sidetracked by the 3 wrong answers!!!

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31. A respiratory adaptation to aerobic endurance training is?
A. Reduced cardiac output
B. Reduced stroke volume
C. Increased gaseous exchange
D. Increased lung size
32. A long term effect of cardiovascular training would be?
A. Increased blood pooling
B. Increased resting heart rate
C. Decreased mitochondria
D. Decreased blood pressure
33. Venous return is assisted by?
A. Muscle contraction in the lower limbs
B. Muscle relaxation in the lower limbs
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Decreased blood pressure
34. Weight-bearing exercise is essential to reduce the risk of?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Depression
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Osteoarthritis
35. Delayed onset muscle soreness is typically experienced at what time frame after exercise?
A. Within 5 hours
B. Between 6-11 hours
C. Between 12-72 hours
D. After 75 hours
36. Stretching the upper trapezius and strengthening the rhomboids will help to improve?
A. Lordosis
B. Flat back
C. Scoliosis
D. Kyphosis
37. Having full potential range of motion around a joint defines which component of health-related fitness?
A. Flexibility
B. Strength
C. Balance
D. Agility
38. Power is a combination of strength and which other skill-related component of fitness?
A. Speed
B. Agility
C. Endurance
D. Reaction time
39. Ectomorphs are well suited to which type of physical activity?
A. Heavy weight training
B. Long distance running
C. The shot put
D. Sprinting
40. The phrase ‘use it or lose it’ would describe which training principle?
A. Overload
B. Individuality
C. Specificity
D. Reversibility

Q31 = C  Q32 = D  Q43 = A  Q34 = A  Q35 = C

Q36 = D  Q37 = A  Q38 = A  Q39 = B  Q40 = D

Your score =   / Out of 10

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41. Specificity of training refers primarily to the?
A. Frequency
B. Intensity
C. Time
D. Type
42. The recommended target heart rate (THR) intensity when training for general cardiovascular fitness is from 60% of maximum heart rate (MHR) to?
A. 90% MHR
B. 80% MHR
C. 75% MHR
D. 65% MHR
43. An indicator that training may need to be regressed would be?
A. Improved agility
B. Reduced blood pressure
C. Reduced performance
D. Improved balance
44. Which of the following exercises would be most appropriate for pre-natal clients in the second trimester?
A. Back extension
B. Gentle pelvic floor exercises
C. Crunches
D. Bicycle crunch
45. The anaerobic capacity for boys and girls is not fully developed until the age of?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 16
D. 20
46. Multiple Sclerosis is classified as what sort of physical disability?
A. Adaptive
B. Progressive
C. Accelerative
D. Regressive
47. The greatest advantage of using the talk test to monitor intensity would be that it?
A. Correlates with heart rate
B. Correlates with blood pressure
C. Is an accurate measure
D. Is quick and easy to use
48. What is a dietary source of carbohydrate?
A. Red meat
B. Vegetables
C. Cheese
D. Chocolate
49. The Eat-well plate guidance recommends that salt intake should be limited to how many grams a day?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
50. Which of the following is the primary role of protein?
A. To help the body to use fat soluble vitamins
B. To provide insulation under the skin
C. To grow and repair human tissue
D. To assist digestion and hydration

Q41 = D  Q42 = A  Q43 = C  Q44 = B  Q45 = D

Q46 = B  Q47 = D  Q48 = B  Q49 = C  Q50 = C

Your score =   / Out of 10

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